PTCB Controlled Substances Quiz

Test PTCB Controlled Substances Quiz to Master classifications, improve knowledge of drug schedules, accuracy, and get ready for the pharmacy technician certification exam.

Knowing the classifications of controlled substances is a key part of preparing for the PTCB Practice exam. This quiz helps you test your knowledge of drug schedules and their abuse potential.

Here are the classification:

Schedule I: Drugs with no accepted medical use and a high risk of abuse (e.g., heroin, LSD).
Schedule II: Drugs with a high potential for abuse that may cause severe dependence (e.g., morphine, oxycodone).
Schedule III: Drugs with moderate to low potential for physical dependence and higher psychological dependence (e.g., anabolic steroids, ketamine).
Schedule IV: Drugs with a low potential for abuse and limited dependence risk (e.g., diazepam, lorazepam).

How It Works: Each question lists a controlled substance by name. Select the correct schedule classification from the four options to test your understanding and prepare effectively for the PTCB exam.

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Question 1

Which of the following drugs is classified as a Schedule I controlled substance by the DEA?

A	Morphine
B	Methadone
C	Heroin
D	Alprazolam

Question 1 Explanation:

Schedule I substances have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. Heroin is classified as Schedule I, while Morphine and Methadone are Schedule II, and Alprazolam is Schedule IV.

Question 2

A patient is prescribed oxycodone. Under which DEA schedule is oxycodone classified?

A	Schedule I
B	Schedule II
C	Schedule III
D	Schedule IV

Question 2 Explanation:

Oxycodone is a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse that may lead to severe dependence, but it has accepted medical uses for pain management. Schedule II drugs require a special prescription and strict handling.

Question 3

Which of the following statements about Schedule III drugs is TRUE?

A	They have no accepted medical use and high abuse potential.
B	They require a written prescription with no refills allowed.
C	They have a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence.
D	They can be sold over-the-counter.

Question 3 Explanation:

Schedule III drugs include substances like Tylenol with Codeine and Anabolic steroids, which have accepted medical use and a moderate to low risk of dependence compared to Schedule I or II substances.

Question 4

Which regulation requires pharmacies to maintain controlled substances records separately from other drug records?

A	FDA
B	HIPAA
C	OSHA
D	DEA

Question 4 Explanation:

The DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) mandates that pharmacies maintain separate records for controlled substances to ensure accountability and prevent diversion or misuse. These records must include inventory logs, dispensing logs, and purchase orders.

Question 5

A prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance must include which of the following specific pieces of information?

A	DEA registration number of the prescriber
B	Patient’s diagnosis
C	Prescriber’s phone number
D	Pharmacy technician’s initials

Question 5 Explanation:

A Schedule II prescription must include the prescriber’s DEA registration number. This is essential for tracking the controlled substance and ensuring it is legally prescribed by a licensed practitioner.

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT a Schedule II controlled substance?

A	Fentanyl
B	Morphine
C	Diazepam
D	Hydrocodone

Question 6 Explanation:

Diazepam (Valium) is a Schedule IV controlled substance, indicating it has a lower potential for abuse compared to Schedule II drugs like Fentanyl, Morphine, and Hydrocodone, which are tightly regulated.

Question 7

How long must records of Schedule II controlled substance transactions be kept by a pharmacy?

A	5 year
B	1 year
C	2 year
D	10 year

Question 7 Explanation:

The DEA requires that records of controlled substance transactions be kept for a minimum of 5 years to allow for regulatory inspections and to prevent misuse or diversion.

Question 8

Which of the following drugs is commonly associated with the REMS (Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy) program due to its high risk?

A	Ibuprofen
B	Warfarin
C	Clozapine
D	Diphenhydramine

Question 8 Explanation:

Clozapine is subject to REMS requirements due to risks of agranulocytosis (dangerously low white blood cell count). The program ensures prescribers and patients follow strict monitoring protocols for safety.

Question 9

What is the primary purpose of the DEA Form 222?

A	Reporting adverse drug events
B	Ordering Schedule II controlled substances
C	Recording daily pharmacy sales
D	Applying for a pharmacy license

Question 9 Explanation:

DEA Form 222 is required when ordering or transferring Schedule II controlled substances. It ensures strict accountability and tracks controlled substances from manufacturer to pharmacy.

Question 10

Which controlled substance schedule includes drugs like Alprazolam and Lorazepam?

A	Schedule II
B	Schedule III
C	Schedule IV
D	Schedule V

Question 10 Explanation:

Alprazolam (Xanax) and Lorazepam (Ativan) are classified as Schedule IV controlled substances. These drugs have a lower abuse potential and accepted medical use but still require prescriptions and regulation.

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