PTCB 90 Question Practice Test Free offers realistic multiple-choice questions and detailed explanations to help you prepare, identify knowledge gaps, and pass your Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam with confidence.
PTCB 90 Question Practice Test
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Question 1 |
A patient is prescribed Warfarin 5 mg PO once daily. Which of the following is the most important patient counseling point?
Take with dairy products to enhance absorption | |
Avoid activities that may cause bleeding and report unusual bruising | |
Take immediately before bedtime | |
Double the dose if you miss one |
Question 1 Explanation:
Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Patients must avoid activities that may cause injury and report any signs of excessive bruising, bleeding gums, or unusual bleeding to their healthcare provider.
Question 2 |
Which of the following actions is a violation of DEA regulations regarding controlled substances?
Keeping Schedule III substance records separate from other drug records | |
Reporting theft of controlled substances to the DEA immediately | |
Using DEA Form 222 for ordering Schedule II substances | |
Refilling a Schedule II prescription without a new prescription |
Question 2 Explanation:
Schedule II controlled substances cannot be refilled. A new, valid prescription is required for each fill. This strict rule helps prevent abuse and diversion.
Question 3 |
Which of the following is the best method for preventing medication errors in a pharmacy?
Label medications in a dark area to prevent light exposure | |
Rely solely on verbal communication with patients | |
Perform independent double checks of high-alert medications | |
Skip verifying allergies for refills |
Question 3 Explanation:
High-alert medications, like insulin or anticoagulants, have a higher risk of causing significant harm. Independent double-checks help ensure accuracy in preparation and administration, improving patient safety.
Question 4 |
A prescription reads "Amoxicillin 250 mg PO q8h for 10 days." What is the total number of doses the patient should take?
30 doses | |
20 doses | |
40 doses | |
10 doses |
Question 4 Explanation:
q8h means every 8 hours → 3 doses per day.
3 doses/day × 10 days = 30 doses.
Question 5 |
A physician orders 1.5 grams of medication. The stock bottle contains 500 mg tablets. How many tablets are required?
3 tablet | |
2 tablet | |
1 tablet | |
5 tablet |
Question 5 Explanation:
1.5 grams = 1500 mg → 1500 mg ÷ 500 mg/tablet = 3 tablets.
Question 6 |
Which class of drugs does Loratadine belong to?
Antihypertensives | |
Antihistamines | |
Antibiotics | |
Anticoagulants |
Question 6 Explanation:
Loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine commonly used to treat allergic rhinitis and urticaria. It works by blocking histamine receptors.
Question 7 |
What is the maximum number of refills allowed on a Schedule III or IV prescription without a new prescription?
5 refills in 6 months | |
3 refills in 3 months | |
No refills allowed | |
Unlimited refills |
Question 7 Explanation:
Schedule III and IV substances may be refilled up to 5 times in a 6-month period. After that, a new prescription is required.
Question 8 |
Which of the following is a look-alike, sound-alike drug pair that could lead to medication errors?
Insulin and Warfarin | |
Amoxicillin and Ibuprofen | |
Celebrex and Celexa | |
Metformin and Metoprolol |
Question 8 Explanation:
Celebrex (Celecoxib) is an anti-inflammatory, while Celexa (Citalopram) is an antidepressant. Their similar appearance and sound could cause dispensing errors, hence requiring extra care.
Question 9 |
What does the abbreviation "gtt" stand for, and when is it commonly used?
Gutta, meaning drops for liquid medications | |
Gram, for weight measurements | |
Gastrointestinal tract, for digestive medications | |
Good therapeutic tolerance, for patient monitoring |
Question 9 Explanation:
"gtt" is derived from Latin "gutta," meaning drop. It’s used to describe doses of liquid medications, especially eye or ear drops.
Question 10 |
A nurse is instructed to administer Dextrose 5% IV at a rate of 60 mL/hour for 24 hours. How many total milliliters will the patient receive in 24 hours?
1200 mL | |
1440 mL | |
600 mL | |
1800 mL |
Question 10 Explanation:
60 mL/hour × 24 hours = 1440 mL.
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